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Re: Goldbach's Conjecture (fwd)
Jim Choate wrote:
> What started this whole enquiry for me was the realization that the
> multiplication identity axiom is related to the definition of a prime. Then
> add on top of that the reason we exclude 1 is so we don't have to write
> '...except for the prime 1' on the end of lots of number theory (re Richard
> Feynman's comment during the Challenger Investigation). It was the
> realization that if we go ahead and include 1 so the axioms are in line with
> each other (and use our cut&paste feature for the '...1...') then perhaps it
> would provide a more consistent base and just maybe some of the extant
> problems in number theory might become solvable in other ways. My original
> intention was to get a copy of Doug Lenat's EURISKO theorem proving program
> and change the definition of prime in its database and note the results
> (after converting it to Perl from LISP). What started all that is that I'm
> slowly going through 'An Introduction to Algebraic Structures' by J. Landin
> (Dover) creating a cheat-sheet of number theory that eventualy I hope to post
> on my webpage for reference.
If you 'define' 1 to be 'prime', you are 'defining' Goldbach's
conjecture 'away'!
M. K. Shen