>Since all possible finite bit strings are, by definition, contained
>in the unending cavalcade of bits in pi,
Definition? I have seen not this asserted even by theorem. Not
surprising, since the statement is patently false. There are
2^{\aleph_0} finite bit strings, and only \aleph_0 of those are
subsequences of pi.
For those of you without a math background, this means "They all just
don't fit."
Eric